1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40
41
42
43
44
45
46
47
48
49
50
51
52
53
54
55
56
57
58
59
60
61
62
63
64
65
66
67
68
69
70
71
72
73
74
75
76
77
78
79
80
81
82
83
84
85
86
87
88
89
90
91
92
93
94
95
96
97
98
99
100
101
102
103
104
105
106
107
108
109
110
111
112
113
114
115
116
117
118
119
120
121
122
123
124
125
126
127
128
129
130
131
132
133
134
135
136
137
138
139
140
141
142
143
144
145
146
147
148
149
150
151
152
153
154
155
156
157
158
159
160
161
162
163
164
165
166
167
168
169
170
171
172
173
174
175
176
177
178
179
180
181
182
183
184
185
186
187
188
189
190
191
192
193
194
195
196
197
198
199
200
201
202
203
204
205
206
207
208
209
210
211
212
213
214
215
216
217
218
219
220
221
222
223
224
225
226
227
228
229
230
231
232
233
234
235
236
237
238
239
240
241
242
243
244
245
246
247
248
249
250
251
252
253
254
255
256
257
258
259
260
261
262
263
264
265
266
267
268
269
270
271
272
273
274
275
276
277
278
279
280
281
282
283
284
285
286
287
288
289
290
291
292
293
294
295
296
297
298
299
300
301
302
303
304
305
306
|
---
title: "Euler-Bernoulli law"
sort_title: "Euler-Bernoulli law"
date: 2021-06-03
categories:
- Physics
layout: "concept"
---
**Euler-Bernoulli beam theory** concerns itself with the bending of beams
(e.g. the metal beams used in large buildings),
subject to certain simplifying assumptions,
which are generally valid for beams that are narrow,
i.e. longitudinally much larger than transversely.
Consider a beam of length $$L$$, placed upright
on the $$z = 0$$ plane, above the origin.
If we pull the top of this beam in the postive $$y$$-direction,
we assume that it bends uniformly,
i.e. with constant radius of [curvature](/know/concept/curvature/) $$R$$.
We also assume that the bending is **shear-free**:
if we treat the beam as a bundle of elastic strings,
then there is no friction between them.
The central string has its length unchanged (i.e. still $$L$$),
while an arbitrary non-central string is extended or compressed to $$L'$$.
The [Cauchy strain tensor](/know/concept/cauchy-strain-tensor/) element $$u_{zz}$$ is then:
$$\begin{aligned}
u_{zz}
= \frac{L' - L}{L}
\end{aligned}$$
Because the bending is uniform, the central string
is an arc with radius $$R$$ and central angle $$\theta$$,
where $$L = \theta R$$.
The non-central string has $$L' = \theta R'$$,
where $$R'$$ is geometrically shown to be $$R' = R - y$$,
with $$y$$ being the $$y$$-coordinate of that string at the beam's base.
So:
$$\begin{aligned}
u_{zz}
= \frac{R' - R}{R}
= - \frac{y}{R}
\end{aligned}$$
By assumption, there are no shear stresses
and no forces acting on the beam's sides,
so the only nonzero component of the
[Cauchy stress tensor](/know/concept/cauchy-stress-tensor/) $$\hat{\sigma}$$
is $$\sigma_{zz}$$, given by [Hooke's law](/know/concept/hookes-law/):
$$\begin{aligned}
\sigma_{zz} = E u_{zz}
\end{aligned}$$
Where $$E$$ is the elastic modulus of the material.
By Hooke's inverse law,
the other nonzero strain components are as follows,
where $$\nu$$ is Poisson's ratio:
$$\begin{aligned}
u_{xx}
= u_{yy}
= - \frac{\nu}{E} \sigma_{zz}
= - \nu u_{zz}
= \nu \frac{y}{R}
\end{aligned}$$
For completeness, we turn the strain tensor $$\hat{u}$$
into a full displacement field $$\va{u}$$:
$$\begin{aligned}
\boxed{
u_x = \nu \frac{x y}{R}
\qquad
u_y = \frac{z^2}{2 R} + \nu \frac{y^2 - x^2}{2 R}
\qquad
u_z = - \frac{y z}{R}
}
\end{aligned}$$
{% include proof/start.html id="proof-field" -%}
By integrating the above strains $$u_{ii} = \ipdv{u_i}{i}$$,
we get the components of $$\va{u}$$:
$$\begin{aligned}
u_x
= \nu \frac{x y}{R} + f_x(y, z)
\qquad
u_y
= \nu \frac{y^2}{2 R} + f_y(x, z)
\qquad
u_z
= - \frac{y z}{R} + f_z(x, y)
\end{aligned}$$
Where $$f_x$$, $$f_y$$ and $$f_z$$ are integration constants,
which we find by demanding that the off-diagonal strains $$u_{ij}$$ are zero.
Starting with $$u_{xz} = 0$$:
$$\begin{aligned}
0
= u_{xz}
= \frac{1}{2} \Big( \pdv{u_x}{z} + \pdv{u_z}{x} \Big)
= \frac{1}{2} \Big( \pdv{f_x}{z} + \pdv{f_z}{x} \Big)
\end{aligned}$$
Here, only $$f_x$$ may depend on $$z$$,
and only $$f_z$$ may depend on $$x$$.
This equation thus tell us:
$$\begin{aligned}
f_x(y, z)
= z \: g(y)
\qquad \quad
f_z(x, y)
= - x \: g(y)
\end{aligned}$$
Where $$g(y)$$ is an unknown integration constant.
Moving on to $$u_{xy} = 0$$:
$$\begin{aligned}
0
= \frac{1}{2} \Big( \pdv{u_x}{y} + \pdv{u_y}{x} \Big)
= \frac{1}{2} \Big( \nu \frac{x}{R} + \pdv{f_x}{y} + \pdv{f_y}{x} \Big)
\end{aligned}$$
Only $$f_x$$ may contain $$y$$,
so its $$y$$-derivative must be a constant,
so $$g(y) = C y$$. Therefore:
$$\begin{aligned}
f_x(y, z)
= C y z
\qquad
f_y(x, z)
= - \nu \frac{x^2}{2 R} - C x z + h(z)
\qquad
f_z(x, y)
= - C x y
\end{aligned}$$
Where $$h(z)$$ is an unknown integration constant.
Finally, we put everything in $$u_{yz} = 0$$:
$$\begin{aligned}
0
= \frac{1}{2} \Big( \pdv{u_y}{z} + \pdv{u_z}{y} \Big)
= \frac{1}{2} \Big( \pdv{f_y}{z} - \frac{z}{R} + \pdv{f_z}{y} \Big)
= \frac{1}{2} \Big( \!-\! 2 C x + \dv{h}{z} - \frac{z}{R} \Big)
\end{aligned}$$
Only the first term contains $$x$$, so to satisfy this equation, we must set $$C = 0$$.
The remaining terms then tell us that $$h(z) = z^2 / (2 R)$$.
Therefore:
$$\begin{aligned}
f_x = 0
\qquad
f_y = - \nu \frac{x^2}{2 R} + \frac{z^2}{2 R}
\qquad
f_z = 0
\end{aligned}$$
Inserting this into the components $$u_x$$, $$u_y$$ and $$u_z$$
then yields the full displacement field.
{% include proof/end.html id="proof-field" %}
In any case, the beam experiences a bending torque with an $$x$$-component $$T_x$$ given by:
$$\begin{aligned}
T_x
= - \int_A y \sigma_{zz} \dd{A}
= - \frac{E}{R} \int_A y^2 \dd{A}
\end{aligned}$$
Where $$A$$ is the cross-section.
Th above integral is known as the **area moment**,
and is typically abbreviated by $$I$$.
This brings us to the **Euler-Bernoulli law**:
$$\begin{aligned}
\boxed{
T_x
= - \frac{E I}{R}
}
\qquad \quad
I
\equiv \int_A y^2 \dd{A}
\end{aligned}$$
The product $$E I$$ is called the **flexural rigidity**,
i.e. the beam's "stiffness".
For a small deformation, i.e. a large radius of curvature $$R$$,
the law can be approximated by:
$$\begin{aligned}
T_x
\approx - E I \dvn{2}{y}{z}
\end{aligned}$$
## Slender rods
A beam that is very thin in the transverse directions ($$x$$ and $$y$$ in this case),
can be approximated as a single string or rod $$y(z)$$.
Each infinitesimal piece $$(\dd{y}, \dd{z})$$ of the rod
exerts forces $$F_y$$ and $$F_z$$ on the next piece,
and is feels external forces-per-length $$K_y$$ and $$K_z$$, e.g. gravity.
In order to have equilibrium, the total force must be zero:
$$\begin{aligned}
0
&= F_y(z + \dd{z}) - F_y(z) + K_y(z) \dd{z}
\\
0
&= F_z(z + \dd{z}) - F_z(z) + K_z(z) \dd{z}
\end{aligned}$$
Rearranging these relations yields these equations for the internal forces $$F_y$$ and $$F_z$$:
$$\begin{aligned}
\boxed{
\dv{F_y}{z}
= - K_y
}
\qquad \quad
\boxed{
\dv{F_z}{z}
= - K_z
}
\end{aligned}$$
Meanwhile, the rod also feels a torque with $$x$$-component $$T_x$$,
where equilibrium entails:
$$\begin{aligned}
0
= T_x(z + \dd{z}) - T_x(z) + F_z(z) \dd{y} - F_y(z) \dd{z}
\end{aligned}$$
This can be rearranged to get a differential equation for $$T_x$$, namely:
$$\begin{aligned}
\boxed{
\dv{T_x}{z}
= F_y - F_z \dv{y}{z}
}
\end{aligned}$$
If $$F_z$$ and $$\idv{y}{z}$$ are small, the last term can be dropped.
These equations are widely applicable,
but there is one especially important application,
so much so that it is usually what is meant by "Euler-Bernoulli law":
the shape of a laterally loaded rod.
Consider a beam along the $$z$$-axis, carrying a lateral load $$K_y$$,
e.g. its own weight $$A g \rho$$ or more.
Assuming there is no other load $$K_z = 0$$
and $$F_y \ll F_z$$, the above equations become:
$$\begin{aligned}
T_x
= - E I \dvn{2}{y}{z}
\qquad
\dv{T_x}{z}
= F_y
\qquad
\dv{F_y}{z}
= - K_y
\end{aligned}$$
Which we can simply substitute into each other,
eventually leading to:
$$\begin{aligned}
\boxed{
K_y
= \dvn{2}{}{z}\Big( E I \dvn{2}{y}{z} \Big)
}
\end{aligned}$$
This is often referred to as the **Euler-Bernoulli law** as well.
Typically the flexural rigidity $$EI$$ is a constant in $$z$$,
in which case we can reduce the equation to:
$$\begin{aligned}
K_y
= E I \dvn{4}{y}{z}
\end{aligned}$$
Which is clearly solved by a fourth-order polynomial,
given some boundary conditions.
## References
1. B. Lautrup,
*Physics of continuous matter: exotic and everyday phenomena in the macroscopic world*, 2nd edition,
CRC Press.
|